01 NAPLEX Practice Test | quiz | NABP | North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination

01 NAPLEX Practice Test | quiz | NABP | North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination

1 >>Acarbose: ?

• (A) is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor
• (B) is safe to use in patients with chronic intestinal disease.
• (C) is less than 2% absorbed.
• (D) a and c

Solution Acarbose is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor has very low bioavailibility and is less than 2% absorbed. Since it acts locally in the GI tract due to its low absorption, it is not safe to use in patients with chronic intestinal disease.

2 >>Glyburide: ?

• (A) may cause a disulfiram-like reaction.
• (B) has an onset of action of 15-60 minutes.
• (C) can be used to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus.
• (D) a and b

Solution Glyburide may cause a disulfiram-like reaction because alcohol may delay the absorption and elimination of it. The onset of action of glyburide is 15-60 minutes. Oral agents used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus cannot be used in type 1 diabetics because their beta cells are non-functional and they need daily insulin injections, so glyburide cannot be used to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus.

3 >>Ranitidine: ?

• (A) is a histamine-2 antagonist.
• (B) can be used to treat peptic ulcer disease.
• (C) may cause dizziness.
• (D) All of the above

Solution Ranitidine is a histamine-2 antagonist that can be used to treat peptic ulcer disease. It may cause dizziness and is eliminated both in the urine and feces. All of the above choices are correct.

4 >>What is the DEA schedule for Ultram ? ?

• (A) C-I
• (B) C-II
• (C) C-III
• (D) None of the above

Solution Ultram (tramadol) is not currently scheduled by the Drug Enforcement Association (DEA). None of the choices are correct.

5 >>Captopril is a(n): ?

• (A) angiotensin-receptor blocker.
• (B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
• (C) beta blocker.
• (D) thiazide diuretic.

Solution Captopril, an ACE-inhibitor, works by inhibiting the angiotensin converting enzyme.

6 >>Which of the following products is/are not appropriate for a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin )? I. Percodan II. Demerol III. Dilaudid ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II
• (D) II and III

Solution Percodan contains oxycodone and aspirin. The combination of aspirin and Coumadin increases bleeding risk and should not be used together unless carefully monitored by a physician. Demerol and Dilaudid do not contain aspirin and therefore do not have the risk of this interaction.

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7 >>Furosemide is a(n): ?

• (A) angiotensin-receptor blocker.
• (B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
• (C) beta blocker.
• (D) loop diuretic.

Solution Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle and the distal renal tubule.

8 >>How many tablets of Darvocet-N 100 is in the maximum adult daily dose? ?

• (A) 6 tablets
• (B) 8 tablets
• (C) 10 tablets
• (D) 12 tablets

Solution The current maximum adult daily dose of acetaminophen is 4 g. Each tablet of Darvocet-N 100 contains 650 mg of acetaminophen. So 4000 mg/650 mg 1/4 6 tablets maximum a day. Note: The FDA is currently considering lower maximum daily limits for acetaminophen dosing.

9 >>Metoprolol is a(n): ?

• (A) angiotensin-receptor blocker.
• (B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
• (C) beta blocker.
• (D) thiazide diuretic.

Solution Metoprolol, a beta blocker, is a selective inhibitor of beta-1 adrenergic receptors.

10 >>Hydrochlorothiazide is a(n): ?

• (A) angiotensin-receptor blocker.
• (B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
• (C) beta blocker.
• (D) thiazide diuretic.

Solution Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that blocks sodium in the distal tubule.

11 >>Candesartan is a(n): ?

• (A) angiotensin-receptor blocker.
• (B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
• (C) beta blocker.
• (D) thiazide diuretic.

Solution Candesartan binds to the AT1 angiotensin II receptor and this prevents angiotensin II from binding. This is why candesartan is classified as an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB).

12 >>Tamoxifen is a(n): ?

• (A) rapid-acting insulin.
• (B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor.
• (C) antiestrogen.
• (D) corticosteroid.

Solution Tamoxifen competitively binds to estrogen receptors and inhibits the effects of estrogen. It is a cytostatic anti-estrogen, since it suppresses cell growth and multiplication.

13 >>Glipizide is a(n): ?

• (A) rapid-acting insulin.
• (B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor.
• (C) antiestrogen.
• (D) sulfonylurea.

Solution Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that works by stimulating insulin release from beta cells in the pancreas.

14 >>Simavastatin is a(n): ?

• (A) rapid-acting insulin.
• (B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor.
• (C) antiestrogen.
• (D) corticosteroid.

Solution Simvastatin competitively inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, the enzyme that is responsible for catalyzing the rate limiting step in the synthesis of cholesterol.

15 >>Methylprednisolone is a(n): ?

• (A) rapid-acting insulin.
• (B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor.
• (C) antiestrogen.
• (D) corticosteroid.

Solution Methylprednisone is a corticosteroid that is affects a number physiologic systems such as immunity, inflamation, and stress.

16 >>Lispro is a(n): ?

• (A) rapid-acting insulin.
• (B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor.
• (C) antiestrogen.
• (D) corticosteroid.

Solution Insulin Lispro is a rapid acting injectable insulin.

17 >>Nedocromil is a(n): ?

• (A) mast cell stabilizer.
• (B) b-agonist.
• (C) calcium-channel blocker.
• (D) H2 antagonist.

Solution Nedocromil is a mast cell stabilizer that inhibits a variety of inflammatory cells.

18 >>Albuterol is a(n): ?

• (A) mast cell stabilizer.
• (B) b-agonist.
• (C) calcium-channel blocker.
• (D) H2 antagonist.

Solution Albuterol is a beta-2-adrenergic agonist.

19 >>Diphenydramine is a(n): ?

• (A) mast cell stabilizer.
• (B) b-agonist.
• (C) calcium-channel blocker.
• (D) H1 antagonist.

Solution Diphenhydramine is an H1-receptor antagonist.

20 >>Verapamil is a(n): ?

• (A) mast cell stabilizer.
• (B) b-agonist.
• (C) calcium-channel blocker.
• (D) H2 antagonist.

Solution Verapamil is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that inhibits calcium from entering the 'slow channels' of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium. Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer. Albuterol is a beta-agonist. Diphenhydramine is an H1-antagonist. Ranitidine is an H2-antagonist.

21 >>Ranitidine is a(n): ?

• (A) mast cell stabilizer.
• (B) b-agonist.
• (C) calcium-channel blocker.
• (D) H2 antagonist.

Solution Ranitidine is an H2-antagonist that competitively inhibits histamine at H2 receptors in gastric parietal cells. Cromolyn Is a mast cell stabilizer. Albuterol is a beta-agonist. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker. Diphenhydramine is an H1-antagonist.

22 >>Flexeril is available in which of the following strength(s)? I. 2.5 mg II. 5 mg III. 10 mg ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II
• (D) II and III

Solution Flexeril (cyclobenzaprine HCl) is available as both a 5 mg and a 10 mg tablet.

23 >>Fluticasone is a: ?

• (A) H1 antagonist.
• (B) H2 antagonist.
• (C) b-agonist.
• (D) corticosteroid.

Solution Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid. Diphenhydramine is an H1-antagonist. Ranitidine is an H2-antagonist. Albuterol is a beta-agonist. Metoprolol is a beta-antagonist.

24 >>Which of the following is useful in the treatment of acute, productive cough? ?

• (A) Guaifenesin
• (B) Montelukast
• (C) Ipratropium
• (D) a and b

Solution Guaifenesin is an expectorant that helps loosen phlegm and thin bronchial secretions to make coughs more productive. Montelukast is a leukotriene antagonist used for the treatment of asthma. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic agent that dilates the bronchi and bronchioles and is useful in asthma and COPD.

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25 >>Which of the following is first-line treatment for intermittent asthma? ?

• (A) Cromolyn sodium
• (B) Albuterol
• (C) Prednisone
• (D) 100% oxygen

Solution Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that relaxes smooth muscle and is the treatment of choice for relief of acute symptoms. Cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cell function and is used as an alternative in patients who have mild, persistent asthma. Prednisone is a systemic corticosteroid that is used for moderate to severe exacerbations. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic reduces vagal tone of the airway, and it is used in moderate to severe exacerbations.

26 >>Guaifenesin: ?

• (A) is an expectorant.
• (B) is a cough suppressant.
• (C) thins bronchial secretions.
• (D) a and c

Solution Guaifenesin is an expectorant that helps loosen phlegm and thin bronchial secretions to make coughs more productive.

27 >>Which of the following is an indication for brimonidine? ?

• (A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
• (B) Epilepsy
• (C) Glaucoma
• (D) Increased intracranial pressure

Solution Brimonidine is an alpha2-agonist that reduces aqueous humor formation and is used to treat glaucoma.

28 >>Which of the following is the correct dose of finasteride for benign prostatic hypertrophy? ?

• (A) 0.1 mg daily
• (B) 0.5 mg daily
• (C) 1 mg daily
• (D) 5 mg daily

Solution Finasteride is dosed at 5 mg daily. Dutasteride, another medication used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is dosed at 0.5 mg daily.

29 >>Which of the following is the correct dosage of naproxen? ?

• (A) 750 mg as initial dose for acute gout
• (B) 500 mg twice daily for acute migraine
• (C) 500 mg twice daily for rheumatoid arthritis
• (D) All of the above

Solution Naproxen is dosed at 750 mg initially for an acute gout attack, followed by 250 mg every 8 hours, and 500 mg twice daily for acute migraine and for rheumatoid arthritis.

30 >>What is the most appropriate initial treatment for status epilepticus? ?

• (A) Phenytoin
• (B) Diazepam
• (C) Ethosuximide
• (D) Glutethimide

Solution Diazepam is the most appropriate choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action (almost immediate). Phenytoin is used in status epilepticus as second-line treatment due to a longer onset of action (30 min). Ethosuximide is used to treat absence seizures. Paraldehyde was formerly used for refractory status epilepticut but it has been removed from the market in the US. Glutethimide is used for the short term treatment of insomnia but is not currently available in the US.

31 >>Which of the following may cause a lupus-like reaction? ?

• (A) Guanethidine
• (B) Methyldopa
• (C) Hydralazine
• (D) Diazoxide

Solution Hydralazine may cause a lupus-like reaction that is dose-related and includes: fever, arthralgia, lympadenopathy, myalgia, chest pain, and pleuritic chest pain.

32 >>All of the following are calcium channel blockers EXCEPT? ?

• (A) Amlodipine
• (B) Ibutilide
• (C) Nifedipine
• (D) Verapamil

Solution Ibutilide (Corvert ) is a Class III antiarrhythmic agent not a calcium channel blocker; all the others are calcium channel blockers.

33 >>A 70-year-old man with renal insufficiency is to be treated with a tetracycline. Which of the following will not accumulate to a great degree in this patient's blood? ?

• (A) Minocycline
• (B) Demeclocycline
• (C) Oxytetracycline
• (D) Doxycycline

Solution The dosage of doxycycline does not need to be adjusted in patients with renal failure. Doxycycline is eliminated mostly into bile and feces, with only about 10% of the clearance going through the kidneys. As a result of this unique elimination, doxycycline would not accumulate in the body of a man with renal insufficiency. Minocycline, demeclocycline, oxytetracycline and tetracyline may increase BUN in renal impaired patients and may accumulate systemically.

34 >>Which of the following may cause orthostatic hypotension? I. Prazosin II. Sildenafil III. Amitriptyline ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II only
• (D) I, II, and III

Solution According to the American Autonomic Society and the American Academy of Neurology, orthostatic hypotension is defined as a systolic blood pressure decrease of at least 20 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure decrease of at least 10 mm Hg within three minutes of standing. It may be caused by various types of drugs including alpha blockers like prazosin, sildenafil (Viagra ), and amitriptyline (Elavil ). Other antihypertensive drugs, diuretics, vasodilators, insulin, MAO inhibitors, tranquilizers, narcotics, phenothiazines, sympatholytics, sympathomimetics, and tricyclic antidepressants may also cause orthostatic hypotension.

35 >>Vyvanse is indicated for: ?

• (A) Insomnia
• (B) ADHD
• (C) Depression
• (D) Hyperlipidemia

Solution Vyvanse (lisdexamfetamine) is indicated for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

36 >>How many milligrams of oxycodone HCl are in the lowest strength of Percocet ? ?

• (A) 1 mg
• (B) 2.5 mg
• (C) 5 mg
• (D) 7.5 mg

Solution The smallest strength of Percocet is 2.5 mg oxycodone HCl - 325 mg acetaminophen. There is no strength of Percocet with 1 mg of oxycodone HCl.

37 >>Cholestyramine interferes with the oral absorption of: ?

• (A) phenobarbital.
• (B) chlorothiazide.
• (C) warfarin.
• (D) a, b, and c

Solution Cholestyramine binds some drugs in the intestine and prevents their absorption. These drugs include phenobarbital, chlorothiazide, and warfarin among others.

38 >>All of the following are brands of Amoxicillin EXCEPT: ?

• (A) Moxatag
• (B) Trimox
• (C) Kantrex
• (D) Amoxil

Solution Kantrex is the brand name for kanamycin. Moxatag , Trimox , Amoxil , and Wymox are brand names for amoxicillin

39 >>Anticonvulsants interfere with the metabolism of: ?

• (A) riboflavin
• (B) tyrosine
• (C) renin
• (D) folic acid

Solution Studies have shown that multiple anticonvulsant medications can reduce blood levels of folic acid. There is no evidence to show that anticonvulsants interfere with the metabolism of riobflavin, tyrosin, rennin, or pyridoxine.

40 >>Zyvox is available as: I. IV injection II. Tablets III. Oral suspension ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II only
• (D) I, II, and III

Solution Zyvox (linezolid) is available as IV injection, tablets, and oral suspension.

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