07 NCLEX PN Practical Nurses Quiz | Practice Test 07

NCLEX PN Practical Nurses Quiz | Practice Test 07

1 >>Which of the following snacks would be suitable for the child with gluten-induced enteropathy? ?

• (A) Soft oatmeal cookie
• (B) Buttered popcorn
• (C) Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
• (D) Cheese pizza

Solution The client with gluten-induced enteropathy experiences symptoms after ingesting foods containing wheat, oats, barley, or rye. Corn or millet are substituted in the diet. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they contain foods that worsen the client's condition.

2 >>A client with schizophrenia is receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 400mg twice a day. An adverse side effect of the medication is: ?

• (A) Photosensitivity
• (B) Elevated temperature
• (C) Weight gain
• (D) Elevated blood pressure

Solution Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an adverse reaction that is characterized by extreme elevations in temperature. Answers A and C are incorrect because they are expected side effects. Elevations in blood pressure are associated with reactions between foods containing tyramine and MAOI; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

3 >>Which information should be given to the client taking phenytoin (Dilantin)? ?

• (A) Taking the medication with meals will increase its effectiveness.
• (B) The medication can cause sleep disturbances.
• (C) More frequent dental appointments will be needed for special gum care.
• (D) The medication decreases the effects of oral contraceptives.

Solution Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of phenytoin. The client will need more frequent dental visits. Answers A, B, and D do not apply to the medication; therefore, they are incorrect

4 >>A client has returned to his room following an esophagoscopy. Before offering fluids, the nurse should give priority to assessing the client's: ?

• (A) Level of consciousness
• (B) Gag reflex
• (C) Urinary output
• (D) Movement of extremities

Solution The client's gag reflex is depressed before having an EGD. The nurse should give priority to checking for the return of the gag reflex before offering the client oral fluids. Answer A is incorrect because conscious sedation is used. Answers C and D are not affected by the procedure; therefore, they are incorrect.

5 >>Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching for the client with cataract surgery? ?

• (A) Over-the-counter eyedrops can be used to treat redness and irritation.
• (B) The eye shield should be worn at night.
• (C) It will be necessary to wear special cataract glasses.
• (D) A prescription for medication to control post-operative

Solution The eye shield should be worn at night or when napping, to prevent accidental trauma to the operative eye. Prescription eyedrops, not over-thecounter eyedrops, are ordered for the client; therefore, Answer A is incorrect. The client might or might not require glasses following cataract surgery; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because cataract surgery is pain free

6 >>An 8-year-old is admitted with drooling, muffled phonation, and a temperature of 102�F. The nurse should immediately notify the doctor because the child's symptoms are suggestive of: ?

• (A) Strep throat
• (B) Epiglottitis
• (C) Laryngotracheobronchitis
• (D) Bronchiolitis

Solution The child's symptoms are consistent with those of epiglottitis, an infection of the upper airway that can result in total airway obstruction. Symptoms of strep throat, laryngotracheobronchitis, and bronchiolitis are different than those presented by the client; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect

7 >>Phototherapy is ordered for a newborn with physiologic jaundice. The nurse caring for the infant should: ?

• (A) Offer the baby sterile water between feedings of formula
• (B) Apply an emollient to the baby's skin to prevent drying
• (C) Wear a gown, gloves, and a mask while caring for the infant
• (D) Place the baby on enteric isolation

Solution Providing additional fluids will help the newborn eliminate excess bilirubin in the stool and urine. Answer B is incorrect because oils and lotions should not be used with phototherapy. Physiologic jaundice is not associated with infection; therefore, answers C and D are incorrect.

8 >>A teen hospitalized with anorexia nervosa is now permitted to leave her room and eat in the dining room. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the client's plan of care? ?

• (A) Weighing the client after she eats
• (B) Having a staff member remain with her for 1 hour after she eats
• (C) Placing high-protein foods in the center of the client's plate
• (D) Providing the client with child-size utensils

Solution Having a staff member remain with the client for 1 hour after meals will help prevent self-induced vomiting. Answer A is incorrect because the client will weigh more after meals, which can undermine treatment. Answer C is incorrect because the client will need a balanced diet and excess protein might not be well tolerated at first. Answer D is incorrect because it treats the client as a child rather than as an adult.

9 >>According to Erickson's stage of growth and development, the developmental task associated with middle childhood is: ?

• (A) Trust
• (B) Initiative
• (C) Independence
• (D) Industry

Solution According to Erikson's Psychosocial Developmental Theory, the developmental task of middle childhood is industry versus inferiority. Answer A is incorrect because it is the developmental task of infancy. Answer B is incorrect because it is the developmental task of the school-age child. Answer C is incorrect because it is not one of Erikson's developmental stages.

10 >>The nurse should observe for side effects associated with the use of bronchodilators. A common side effect of bronchodilators is: ?

• (A) Tinnitus
• (B) Nausea
• (C) Ataxia
• (D) Hypotension

Solution A side effect of bronchodilators is nausea. Answers A and C are not associated with bronchodilators; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because hypotension is a sign of toxicity, not a side effect. Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 193

11 >>The 5-minute Apgar of a baby delivered by C-section is recorded as 9. The most likely reason for this score is: ?

• (A) The mottled appearance of the trunk
• (B) The presence of conjunctival hemorrhages
• (C) Cyanosis of the hands and feet
• (D) Respiratory rate of 20-28 per minute

Solution Although cyanosis of the hands and feet is common in the newborn, it accounts for an Apgar score of less than 10. Answer B suggests cooling, which is not scored by the Apgar. Answer B is incorrect because conjunctival hemorrhages are not associated with the Apgar. Answer D is incorrect because it is within normal range as measured by the Apgar.

12 >>A 5-month-old infant is admitted to the ER with a temperature of 103.6�F and irritability. The mother states that the child has been listless for the past several hours and that he had a seizure on the way to the hospital. A lumbar puncture confirms a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. The nurse should assess the infant for: ?

• (A) Periorbital edema
• (B) Tenseness of the anterior fontanel
• (C) Positive Babinski reflex
• (D) Negative scarf sign

Solution Tenseness of the anterior fontanel indicates an increase in intracranial pressure. Answer A is incorrect because periorbital edema is not associated with meningitis. Answer C is incorrect because a positive Babinski reflex is normal in the infant. Answer D is incorrect because it relates to the preterm infant, not the infant with meningitis.

13 >>A client with a bowel resection and anastamosis returns to his room with an NG tube attached to intermittent suction. Which of the following observations indicates that the nasogastric suction is working properly? ?

• (A) The client's abdomen is soft.
• (B) The client is able to swallow.
• (C) The client has active bowel sounds.
• (D) The client's abdominal dressing is dry and intact.

Solution Nasogastric suction decompresses the stomach and leaves the abdomen soft and nondistended. Answer B is incorrect because it does not relate to the effectiveness of the NG suction. Answer C is incorrect because it relates to peristalsis, not the effectiveness of the NG suction. Answer D is incorrect because it relates to wound healing, not the effectiveness of the NG suction.

14 >>The nurse is teaching the client with insulin-dependent diabetes the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following signs is associated with hypoglycemia? ?

• (A) Tremulousness
• (B) Slow pulse
• (C) Nausea
• (D) Flushed skin

Solution Tremulousness is an early sign of hypoglycemia. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are symptoms of hyperglycemia

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15 >>Which of the following symptoms is associated with exacerbation of multiple sclerosis? ?

• (A) Anorexia
• (B) Seizures
• (C) Diplopia
• (D) Insomnia

Solution The most common sign associated with exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is double vision. Answers A, B, and D are not associated with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis; therefore, they are incorrect.

16 >>Which of the following conditions is most likely related to the development of renal calculi? ?

• (A) Gout
• (B) Pancreatitis
• (C) Fractured femur
• (D) Disc disease

Solution Gout and renal calculi are the result of increased amounts of uric acid. Answer B is incorrect because it does not contribute to renal calculi. Answers C and D can result from decreased calcium levels. Renal calculi are the result of excess calcium; therefore, answers C and D are incorrect.

17 >>A client with AIDS is admitted for treatment of wasting syndrome.Which of the following dietary modifications can be used to compensate for the limited absorptive capability of the intestinal tract? ?

• (A) Thoroughly cooking all foods
• (B) Offering yogurt and buttermilk between meals
• (C) Forcing fluids
• (D) Providing small, frequent meals

Solution Providing small, frequent meals will improve the client's appetite and help reduce nausea. Answer A is incorrect because it does not compensate for limited absorption. Foods and beverages containing live cultures are discouraged for the immune-compromised client; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because forcing fluids will not compensate for limited absorption of the intestine

18 >>The treatment protocol for a client with acute lymphocytic leukemia includes prednisone, methotrexate, and cimetadine. The purpose of the cimetadine is to: ?

• (A) Decrease the secretion of pancreatic enzymes
• (B) Enhance the effectiveness of methotrexate
• (C) Promote peristalsis
• (D) Prevent a common side effect of prednisone

Solution A common side effect of prednisone is gastric ulcers. Cimetadine is given to help prevent the development of ulcers. Answers A, B, and C do not relate to the use of cimetadine; therefore, they are incorrect

19 >>Which of the following meal choices is suitable for a 6-month-old infant? ?

• (A) Egg white, formula, and orange juice
• (B) Apple juice, carrots, whole milk
• (C) Rice cereal, apple juice, formula
• (D) Melba toast, egg yolk, whole milk

Solution Rice cereal, apple juice, and formula are suitable foods for the 6-month-old infant. Whole milk, orange juice, and eggs are not suitable for the young infant; therefore, they are incorrect

20 >>The LPN is preparing to administer an injection of vitamin K to the newborn. The nurse should administer the injection in the: ?

• (A) Rectus femoris muscle
• (B) Vastus lateralis muscle
• (C) Deltoid muscle
• (D) Dorsogluteal muscle

Solution The nurse should administer the injection in the vastus lateralis muscle. Answers A and C are not as well developed in the newborn; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because the dorsogluteal muscle is not used for IM injections until the child is 3 years of age

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