03 NAPLEX Practice Test | NABP | North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination

03 NAPLEX Practice Test | quiz | NABP | North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination

1 >>Moduretic contains: ?

• (A) atenolol and chlorthalidone.
• (B) triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide.
• (C) amiloride and hydrochlorothiazide.
• (D) losartan and hydrochlorothiazide.

Solution Moduretic is a combination of amiloride and HCTZ. Atenolol and chlorthalidone is Tenoretic. Triamterene and HCTZ is Dyazide. Losartan and HCTZ is Hyzaar. Clonidine and chlorthalidone is Combipres .

2 >>Combipres contains: ?

• (A) atenolol and chlorthalidone.
• (B) triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide.
• (C) amiloride and hydrochlorothiazide.
• (D) clonidine and chlorthalidone.

Solution Combipres is a combination of clonidine and chlorthalidone. Atenolol and chlorthalidone is Tenoretic. Triamterene and HCTZ is Dyazide. Amiloride and HCTZ is Moduretic. Losartan and HCTZ is Hyzaar.

3 >>Tenoretic contains: ?

• (A) atenolol and chlorthalidone.
• (B) triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide.
• (C) amiloride and hydrochlorothiazide.
• (D) losartan and hydrochlorothiazide.

Solution Tenoretic is a combination of atenolol and chlorthalidone. Triamterene and HCTZ is Dyazide. Amiloride and HCTZ is Moduretic. Losartan and HCTZ is Hyzaar. Clonidine and chlorthalidone is Combipres.

4 >>Zosyn contains: ?

• (A) pipercillin and tazobactam.
• (B) ampicillin and sulbactam.
• (C) dalfopristin and quinupristin.
• (D) imipenem and cilastatin.

Solution Zosyn contains pipercillin and tazobactam.

5 >>What is the generic name for Crestor ? ?

• (A) Carvedilol
• (B) Rosuvastatin
• (C) Venlafaxine
• (D) Pioglitazone

Solution Rosuvastatin is the generic name for Crestor . Carvedilol is the generic name for Coreg . Venlafaxine is the generic of Effexor . Pioglitazone is the generic for Actos .

6 >>Primaxin contains: ?

• (A) piperacillin and tazobactam.
• (B) ampicillin and sulbactam.
• (C) quinupristin and dalfopristin.
• (D) imipenem and cilastatin.

Solution Primaxin contains imipenem and cilastatin. Zosyn is pipercillin and tazobactam. Unasyn is ampicillin and sulbactam. Synercid is quinupristin and dalfopristin. Carbenin is panipenem and betamiron, a combination product available in Japan.

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7 >>Unasyn contains: ?

• (A) piperacillin and tazobactam.
• (B) ampicillin and sulbactam.
• (C) quinipristin and dalfopristin.
• (D) imipenem and cilastatin.

Solution Unasyn contains ampicillin and sulbactam. Zosyn is pipercillin and tazobactam. Synercid is quinupristin and dalfopristin. Primaxin is imipenem and cilastatin. Carbenin is panipenem and betamiron, a combination product available in Japan.

8 >>Cyclobenzaprine is a: ?

• (A) benzodiazepine.
• (B) skeletal muscle relaxant.
• (C) tricyclic antidepressant.
• (D) GABA receptor agonist.

Solution Cylcobenzaprine (Flexeril ) is a skeletal muscle relaxant. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine (BZD) and GABA receptor agonist. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), and phenobarbital is a barbituate.

9 >>What is the correct dose of cyclobenzaprine for the treatment of pain associated with muscle spasms? ?

• (A) 15-30 mg daily
• (B) 5-10 mg daily
• (C) 25-100 mg daily
• (D) 100-250 mg daily

Solution The usual dose of cyclobenzaprine for treatment of pain is 15 mg daily, though some patients may require up to 30 mg/day.

10 >>What is the maximum length of time that cyclobenzaprine should be used? ?

• (A) 7 days
• (B) 3 weeks
• (C) 2 months
• (D) 6 months

Solution Cyclobenzaprine should not be used longer than 3 weeks, due to potential increased risk of side effects.

11 >>Cyclobenzaprine: ?

• (A) has an onset of action of 1 hour.
• (B) has a duration of action of 12-24 hours.
• (C) has a half-life of elimination of 8-37 hours.
• (D) a, b, and c

Solution The onset of action for cyclobenzaprine is 1 hour and the duration of effect is 12-24 hours. The half-life elimination is 8-37 hours.

12 >>What is the correct dose of methocarbamol? ?

• (A) 1.5 g PO 4 times per day
• (B) 1 g IM every 8 hours
• (C) 1-3 g IV every 6 hours
• (D) All of the above

Solution Methocarbamol can be dosed as any of the following: 1.5 g PO qid, 1 g IM q8h, or 1-3 g IV q6h.

13 >>Side effects associated with methocarbamol include all of the following EXCEPT: ?

• (A) bradycardia
• (B) urticaria
• (C) vertigo
• (D) leukocytosis

Solution Methocarbamol causes leukopenia, not leukocytosis. It also causes bradycardia, urticaria, vertigo, and jaundice.

14 >>What is the correct initial dose of amlodipine? ?

• (A) 0.5 mg bid
• (B) 5 mg bid
• (C) 10 mg bid
• (D) 5 mg qd

Solution The correct initial dose of amlodipine is 5 mg once daily.

15 >>What is the maximum daily dose of amlodipine? ?

• (A) 1 mg
• (B) 5 mg
• (C) 10 mg
• (D) 25 mg

Solution The maximum daily dose of amlodipine is 10 mg once daily.

16 >>Zolpidem is a(n): ?

• (A) opiate.
• (B) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.
• (C) hypnotic.
• (D) barbituate.

Solution Zolpidem is a hypnotic. Morphine is an opiate, citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), phenobarbital is a barbiturate, and phenelzine is an MAO Inhibitor (MAOI).

17 >>What is the correct dosage of zolpidem? ?

• (A) 10 mg
• (B) 0.1 mg
• (C) 10 mcg
• (D) 0.1 mcg

Solution The correct dosage of zolpidem is 10 mg.

18 >>What is the maximum daily dose of zolpidem? ?

• (A) 10 mg
• (B) 20 mg
• (C) 10 mcg
• (D) 20 mcg

Solution The maximum daily dose of zolpidem is 10 mg.

19 >>Eszopiclone may cause all of the following adverse effects EXCEPT: ?

• (A) unpleasant taste.
• (B) diplopia.
• (C) gynecomastia.
• (D) hallucinations.

Solution Eszopiclone does not cause diplopia, but may cause nystagmus. Eszopiclone causes unpleasant taste, gynecomastia, hallucinations, and headache.

20 >>Eszopiclone is used to treat: ?

• (A) depression.
• (B) bipolar disorder.
• (C) generalized anxiety disorder.
• (D) insomnia.

Solution Eszopiclone is indicated for insomnia.

21 >>What is the correct initial dose of sulfasalazine in the treatment of ulcerative colitis? ?

• (A) 0.5 g 3-4 times per day
• (B) 0.5 g once per day
• (C) 1 g 3-4 times per day
• (D) 10 g once per day

Solution The initial dose of sulfasalazine in the treatment of ulcerative colitis is 1g PO 3-4 times/day. 0.5 g/day is initial treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.

22 >>What is the brand name of sulfasalazine? ?

• (A) Azulfidine
• (B) Asosulfide
• (C) Sulfasalicide
• (D) Sulfocyte

Solution The brand name of sulfasalazine is Azulfidine . Sulfonate is the name of a salt or ester of sulfonic acid.

23 >>What is the generic name of Seroquel ? ?

• (A) Amitriptyline
• (B) Aripiprazole
• (C) Quetiapine
• (D) Clozapine

Solution Seroquel is quetiapine, Abilify is aripiprazole. Elavil is amitriptyline, Clozaril is clozapine, and Risperdal is risperidone.

24 >>What is the generic name of Abilify ? ?

• (A) Amitriptyline
• (B) Aripiprazole
• (C) Quetiapine
• (D) Clozapine

Solution Abilify is aripiprazole. Elavil is amitriptyline, Seroquel is quetiapine, Clozaril is clozapine, and Risperdal is risperidone.

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25 >>What is the correct daily maintenance dose of quetiapine for depression? ?

• (A) 100 mg
• (B) 150 mg
• (C) 300 mg
• (D) 500 mg

Solution Patients with depression should be titrated to a maintenance dose of 300 mg/day of quetipaine. Studies have not shown added benefit in patients treated with 600 mg/day of quetiapine.

26 >>Of the following, which amount best represents an initial total daily target for quetiapine in the treatment of schizophrenia? ?

• (A) 100 mg
• (B) 150 mg
• (C) 300 mg
• (D) 500 mg

Solution Patients with schizophrenia should be initially titrated up to 300-400 mg/day in 2-3 divided doses. The usual maintenance range for quetiapine is 300-800 mg/day.

27 >>Side effects of quetiapine include all of the following EXCEPT: ?

• (A) hypotension.
• (B) somnolence.
• (C) hypercholesterolemia.
• (D) bradycardia.

Solution Quetiapine does not cause bradycardia, rather it may cause tachycardia. Quetiapine can cause hypotension, somnolence, hypercholesterolemia, and fever.

28 >>Carisoprodol is metabolized to which of the following? ?

• (A) Meprobamate
• (B) Dopamine
• (C) Morphine
• (D) Phenobarbital

Solution Carisoprodol is metabolized in the liver by CYP 2C19 to meprobamate.

29 >>What is a correct initial daily dose of aripiprazole for the treatment of schizophrenia? ?

• (A) 15 mg per day
• (B) 30 mg per day
• (C) 45 mg per day
• (D) 90 mg per day

Solution For schizophrenia, the initial dose of aripiprazole is 10-15 mg per day. Doses higher than 10-15 mg have not shown increased efficacy for the treatment of schizophrenia, so doses higher than 15 mg per day would be unnecessary.

30 >>What is the correct initial daily dose of aripiprazole for the treatment of bipolar disorder? ?

• (A) 15 mg per day
• (B) 30 mg per day
• (C) 45 mg per day
• (D) 90 mg per day

Solution For bipolar disorder, the initial dose of aripiprazole is 15 mg per day; however, the dose may be increased to 30 mg per day if clinically indicated.

31 >>Olanzapine: ?

• (A) may cause postural hypotension.
• (B) is available for oral, IM, and IV administration.
• (C) is a serotonin agonist.
• (D) is

Solution Olanzapine may cause postural hypotension. Olanzapine is available as injection for intramuscular use only. It is also available in orally disintegrating tablets, and tablets for oral use. It is not, however, available as an oral suspension. It should never be given IV. The drug is an atypical antipsychotic and not a serotonin agonist. It is 93% bound to plasma proteins and has a long half life ranging from 21 to 54 hours.

32 >>Singulair is available in which of the following strength(s)? I. 5 mg II. 10 mg III. 4 mg ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II
• (D) I, II, and III

Solution Singulair is available in 4 mg granules and chewable tablets, a 5 mg chewable tablet, and a 10mg tablet.

33 >>OTC products containing minoxidil include: I. solutions. II. gel. III. tablets. ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II
• (D) II and III

Solution OTC Minoxidil is available as a solution and as a foam for stimulating hair growth. OTC tablets are not available; they are prescription only. No gel form is available.

34 >>All of the following drugs are classified as DMARDs EXCEPT: ?

• (A) Diflunisal
• (B) Penicillamine
• (C) Hydroxychloroquine
• (D) Methotrexate

Solution Diflunisal (Dolobid ) is a classified as an NSAID. Penicillamine, hydroxychloroquine, methotrexate, sulfasalzine are all classified as DMARDs.

35 >>What is the correct initial dosage of transdermal selegiline? ?

• (A) 6 mg per 12 hours
• (B) 6 mg per 24 hours
• (C) 6 mg per 48 hours
• (D) 3 mg per 24 hours

Solution The recommended initial dose approved by the FDA for depression using transdermal selegiline is 6 mg/24 hr period.

36 >>Donepezil is a(n): ?

• (A) acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
• (B) dopamine antagonist.
• (C) GABA agonist.
• (D) GABA antagonist.

Solution Donepezil noncompetitively antagonizes centrally acting acetycholinesterase, but is reversible. It has no activity or any direct effect on GABA, serotonin, or dopamine.

37 >>How is donepezil supplied? ?

• (A) 5 or 10 mg
• (B) 10 or 20 mg
• (C) 5 or 15 mg
• (D) 100 or 250 mg

Solution Donepezil comes in 5 mg and 10 mg tablets only.

38 >>For the treatment of what condition(s) is/are donezepil approved? ?

• (A) Major depression
• (B) Bipolar disorder
• (C) Dementia
• (D) a and b

Solution Donepezil is approved by the FDA for mild to severe dementia associated with Alzheimer disease.

39 >>Chloroquine is a: ?

• (A) peroxidase inhibitor.
• (B) aminoquindine.
• (C) n-alpha-quinine.
• (D) aminoquinoline.

Solution Chloroquine has been classified as an aminoquinoline (antimalarial). Aminoquindine is an amino group attached to quinidine (antiarrhythmic). Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic, and n-alpha-quninine is a metabolite of selegiline metabolism.

40 >>What is the correct dose of chloroquine for malaria prophylaxis? ?

• (A) 500 mg per day
• (B) 500 mg bid
• (C) 500 mg tid
• (D) 500 mg per week

Solution In adults, 500 mg per week is the FDA approved initial prophylaxis treatment. There are no other approved dosing regimens for prophylaxis.

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