04 NAPLEX Practice Test | NABP | North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination

04 NAPLEX Practice Test | quiz | NABP | North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination

1 >>Anturane is the U.S. brand name for: ?

• (A) Sulfinpyrazone
• (B) Allopurinol
• (C) Fenifibrate
• (D) Dolasetron

Solution Anturane is the US brand name for sulfinpyrazone.

2 >>What is the correct dose of omeprazole for the treatment of GERD? ?

• (A) 2 mg per day
• (B) 4 mg per day
• (C) 20 mg per day
• (D) 50 mg per day

Solution FDA approved omeprazole dose for treatment of symptomatic GERD is 20 mg/day for 4 weeks. 50 mcg, 2 mg, and 4 mg a day are subtherapeutic regimens, and do not effectively treat GERD. 50 mg a day is not an approved regimen and gives little additional benefit over the 40 mg/day dose based on pharmacodynamic/kinetic profiles.

3 >>Tinidazole is a: ?

• (A) nitroimidazole.
• (B) chloroquinolone.
• (C) amebicide.
• (D) a and c

Solution Tinidazole is an antiprozoal/ antibacterial classified under the pharmacologic categories of nitroimidazole and amebicide.

4 >>What is the correct dosage of tinidazole for the treatment of bacterial vaginosis? ?

• (A) 2 g per day for 5 days
• (B) 2 g per day for 2 days
• (C) 20 g per day for 5 days
• (D) 200 g per day for 2 days

Solution FDA approved tinidazole dose for treatment of bacterial vaginosis is 2 g per day for 2 days. A regimen of 2 g for 5 days adds no additional benefit over 2 day course of treatment. 20 g and 200 g per day for 5 and 2 days are overdoses and increase the risk for serious adverse effects. 200 mg a day for 5 days is a subtherapeutic dose, and may not achieve optimal bacteria killing.

5 >>Side effects of amphotericin B include all of the following EXCEPT: ?

• (A) hypotension.
• (B) tachypnea.
• (C) polycythemia.
• (D) hypomagnesemia.

Solution Amphotericin B can cause anemia not polycythemia. Hypotension, tachypnea, hypo kalemia/ magnesemia have all been adverse effects noted in clinical use.

6 >>What is the correct dose of clotrimazole for oropharyngeal candidiasis prophylaxis? ?

• (A) 10-mg troche once per day
• (B) 10-mg troche three times per day
• (C) 10-mg troche five times per day
• (D) 10-mg troche six times per day

Solution FDA approved clotrimazole prophylatic dose for treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis is 10 mg troche tid for 14 days. 10 mg qd and 10 mg single dose are subtherapeutic doses and may not effectively prevent oral thrush. 10 mg 5 times daily is the correct dosage for patients who actively have oral thrush, but not prophylaxis. 10 mg 6 times daily is not an FDA approved treatment regimen, and may not add any additional benefit.

Download








7 >>What is the correct dose of clotrimazole for treatment of active oropharyngeal candidiasis? ?

• (A) 10-mg troche once per day
• (B) 10-mg troche three times per day
• (C) 10-mg troche five times per day
• (D) 10-mg troche six times per day

Solution FDA approved clotrimazole for active treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis is 10 mg troche 5 times daily for 14 days. 10 mg QD and 10 mg single dose are subtherapeutic doses and may not effectively prevent oral thrush. 10 mg TID is the correct dosage for prophylaxis against oral thrush, but not treatment. 10 mg 6 times daily is not a FDA approved treatment regimen, and may not add any additional benefit.

8 >>Clotrimazole: ?

• (A) is excreted predominantly in the feces.
• (B) is absorbed into systemic circulation following topical application.
• (C) has a time to peak serum concentration of 1-2 days following oral troche.
• (D) a and b

Solution Clotrimazole is excreted in the feces as metabolites. Pharmaceodynamic/kinetic data shows very minimal levels are absorbed systemically after topical application. The peak serum concentration of an oral troche is roughly 3 hours if the troche is allowed to dissolve in the mouth for 30 minutes.

9 >>The federal transfer auxiliary label is required for what schedule of medication? ?

• (A) Schedule II to IV
• (B) Schedule II only
• (C) All schedule drugs
• (D) Schedule II and III only

Solution Auxiliary labels are required by law on all DEA schedule ll to IV because of the abuse potential. The transfer label states that it is illegal for anyone other than whom it was prescribed to take the medication.

10 >>Pregabalin is structurally related to which of the following? ?

• (A) Gabapentin
• (B) Carbamazepine
• (C) Felbamate
• (D) Tiagabine

Solution Pregabalin (Lyrica ) is structurally related to gabapentin and used for neuropathic pain associated with diabetes and fibromyalgia.

11 >>Thiopental: ?

• (A) is a potent analgesic.
• (B) increases cerebral activity as measured by EEG.
• (C) produces respiratory depression dosedependently.
• (D) is only useful as a skeletal muscle relaxant.

Solution Thiopental is a barbituate that affects the respiratory center of the brain, and follows linear kinetics. Barbituates decrease cerebral activity due to effect on inhibitory neurotransmitters. It has the ability to depress the sensory cortex as a hypnotic, and does not alter the perception of pain. It can be used for seizure control, anesthesia induction, and can be used to treat elevated intracranial pressure.

12 >>What are the active ingredients in Lotrel ? ?

• (A) Amlodipine and atorvastatin
• (B) Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide
• (C) Amlodipine and benazepril
• (D) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate

Solution Lotrel is a combination product of amlodipine and benazepril. Prinzide or Zestoretic is a combination of lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. Caduet is a combination of amlodipine and atorvastatin. BiDil is a combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate.

13 >>Prevpac contains which of the following drugs? ?

• (A) Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and lansoprazole
• (B) Ampicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole
• (C) Amoxicillin, azithromycin, and lansoprazole
• (D) Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole

Solution Prevpac is a combination product of amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and lansoprazole. There are no products that contain a combination of ampicillin, a macrolide (azithromycin/clarithromycin), and a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) (lansoprazole/omeprazole). There is no approved combination product that contains amoxicillin and azithromycin with a PPI.

14 >>What is a brand name for tacrolimus? ?

• (A) Prograf
• (B) Propecia
• (C) Proscar
• (D) Protonix

Solution Tacrolimus is generic for Prograf , finasteride is generic for Propecia , and proscar, pantoprazole is generic for Protonix .

15 >>Which of the following is (are) classified as an antiepileptic agent? I. Kaletra II. Lamictal III. Mysoline ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II
• (D) II and IIII

Solution Lamictal (lamotrigine) and Mysoline (primidone) are classified as antiepileptic agents. Kaletra is a combination of lopinavir and ritonavir used for HIV.

16 >>Which of the following is a contraindication for alosetron use? ?

• (A) Diarrhea
• (B) Constipation
• (C) Renal impairment
• (D) Asthma

Solution Alosetron can cause constipation because it antagonizes 5HT-3 (serotonin) receptors in the GI tract, which slows colon transit and secretions. Alosetron is used to treat irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) with predominant diarrhea in women that fail other therapies. It does not need to be renally dosed, and the only disease-related concern is with hepatic function.

17 >>Which of the following are the correct contents and quantity of medication contained in each teaspoonful of Tussionex ? ?

• (A) Hydrocodone 2.5 mg and diphenhydramine 25 mg
• (B) Hydromorphone 2.5 mg and diphenhydramine 25 mg
• (C) Hydromorphone 5 mg and chlordiazepoxide 2.5 mcg
• (D) Hydrocodone 10 mg and chlorpheniramine 8 mg

Solution Tussionex is a combination product of hydrocodone 10 mg and chlorpheniramine 8 mg per 5 mL (teaspoonful).

18 >>What percent chlorhexidine concentration is in the antimicrobial agent Hibiclens ? ?

• (A) 0.04
• (B) 0.1
• (C) 0.14
• (D) 0.15

Solution The manufacturer reports Hibiclens OTC contains 4% Chlorhexidine Gluconate as the active ingredient. There is no other formulation on the market called Hibiclens with a higher concentration.

19 >>What is the generic name of Bactroban ? ?

• (A) Vistaril
• (B) Cetirizine
• (C) Hydroxyzine
• (D) Mupirocin

Solution Mupirocin is generic for Bactroban , hydroxyzine is generic for Vistaril , cetirizine is generic for Zyrtec , and homatropine is generic for Isopto .

20 >>What is the generic name for Detrol ? ?

• (A) Torsemide
• (B) Tolterodine
• (C) Tolazamide
• (D) Topiramate

Solution Tolterodine is generic for Detrol , torsemide is generic for Demadex , tolazamide is generic for Tolinase , topiramate is generic for Topamax , and tolmetin is generic for Tolectin .

21 >>Which of the following statements are true regarding metformin? I. It may cause renal failure. II. It is a hypoglycemic agent. III. The maximum daily dose is 2550 mg/day. ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II
• (D) II and III

Solution About 90% of metformin is excreted via the kidneys as active drug. Metformin can also cause increases in lactic acid leading to lactic acidosis, which can increase the risk of renal failure. It is considered a hypoglycemic agent because it lowers blood glucose. The maximum dose reported by the manufacturer is 2500 g per day in younger adults because there is little additional benefit versus risk at higher doses.

22 >>What is the generic name for Glynase ? ?

• (A) Glyburide
• (B) Acarbose
• (C) Rosiglitazone
• (D) Glimepiride

Solution Glyburide is the generic for Glynase , acarbose is generic for Precose , rosiglitazone is generic for Avandia , glimepiride is generic for Amaryl , and chlorpropamide is generic for Diabinese (discontinued product).

23 >>Cosopt is made of which of the following ingredients? ?

• (A) Brimonidine and timolol
• (B) Dorzolamide and timolol
• (C) Epinephrine and pilocarpine
• (D) Carbachol and dorzolamide

Solution Dorzolamide/timolol is generic for Cosopt , brimonidine/timolol is generic for Combigan , and epinephrine/pilocarpine is generic for Pilopine HS/ Isopto Carpine/Pilocar/ or Adsorbocarpine . There is no combination drug using carbachol and dorzolamide.

24 >>Timolol: ?

• (A) may cause conjunctivitis.
• (B) has a duration of action of 12 hours.
• (C) has a peak effect 6 hours after topical application.
• (D) a and b

Solution Conjunctivitis is a common side effect that has been reported by patients. The duration of action reported by the manufacturer is roughly 4 hours, and the peak effect after topical application ranges from 1-2 hours.

Download








25 >>Which of the following medication suspensions do not need to be refrigerated? I. Zithromax II. Augmentin III. Biaxin ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and III
• (D) II and III

Solution The manufacturer recommends NOT to refrigerate Biaxin due to the possibility the solution will gel. Zithromax can be refrigerated or NOT refrigerated for up to 10 days. Augmentin MUST be refrigerated as reported by manufacturer due to stability issues.

26 >>Home ovulation test kits detect which of the following hormones? ?

• (A) LH
• (B) FSH
• (C) hCG
• (D) TSH

Solution Ovulation is triggered when there is a surge, or rise, of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) marking the first day the egg is released. Folicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) surges on day 1 of menses, and is not a predictor of ovulation. Human Chorionic Ganadotropin (hCG) is produced during pregnancy. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) is a marker of thyroid function.

27 >>Which of the following medications should be avoided in pregnant women due to its properties as an abortifacient? ?

• (A) Misoprostol
• (B) Piroxicam
• (C) Aspirin
• (D) Tetracycline

Solution Misoprostol is classified as and can be used in conjunction with mifepristone as an abortifacient up to 49 days after conception. Piroxicam and aspirin can cause the premature closure of the ductus arteriosus if given in the third trimester, but are not abortifacients. Phenytoin can cause congenital defects and possible hemorrhage at birth. Tetracycline can affect and discolor teeth, but can also effect bone growth during the second trimester.

28 >>Intermittent claudication is treated with which of the following? I. Diovan II. Trental III. Pletal ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and III
• (D) II and III

Solution Trental (pentoxifylline) and Pletal (cilostazol) are used for the treatment of intermittent claudication. Diovan (valsartan) is an ARB used for hypertension.

29 >>What is the generic name for Cozaar ? ?

• (A) Hydrochlorothiazide
• (B) Lisinopril
• (C) Losartan
• (D) Enalapril

Solution The generic name for Cozaar is losartan.

30 >>What are the active ingredients of Symbyax ? ?

• (A) Fluoxetine and olanzapine
• (B) Duloxetine and venlafaxine
• (C) Paroxetine and quetiapine
• (D) Citalopram and olanzapine

Solution The active ingredients in Symbyax are olanzapine and fluoxetine.

31 >>Enbrel works by: ?

• (A) T-cell deactivation.
• (B) TNF antagonism.
• (C) stimulation of red blood cell production.
• (D) gene fusion.

Solution Enbrel (etanercept) is used in the treatment of autoimmune diseases by interfering with the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor.

32 >>Azithromycin is available in which of the following formulations? I. Oral tablets II. Injection III. Oral suspension ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II
• (D) I, II, and III

Solution Azithromycin (Zithromax ) is available as oral tablets and suspension as well injection.

33 >>How frequent should the tetanus booster vaccine be administered? ?

• (A) Every 2 years
• (B) Every 5 years
• (C) Every 10 years
• (D) Every 20 years

Solution The tetanus booster vaccine should be administered every 10 years.

34 >>How many mg of medication are in one teaspoonful of Naprosyn suspension? ?

• (A) 125 mg/5 mL
• (B) 100 mg/5 mL
• (C) 50 mg/5 mL
• (D) 25 mg/5 mL

Solution Naprosyn (naproxen) is available as oral suspension containing 125 mg/5 mL of naproxen.

35 >>Which is the generic name for Norflex? ?

• (A) Diclofenac
• (B) Ibuprofen
• (C) Orphenadrine
• (D) Cyclobenzaprine

Solution The generic name for Norflex is orphenadrine.

36 >>Atacand can best be described as an: ?

• (A) ACE inhibitor
• (B) Diuretic
• (C) Alpha-1 adrenergic blocker
• (D) Angiotensin II receptor blocker

Solution Atacand (candesartan cilexetil) is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist.

37 >>Which of the following drug(s) is (are) an MAO inhibitor? I. Parnate II. Eldepryl III. Mobic ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II
• (D) II and III

Solution Parnate (tranylcypromine) is an MAO inhibitor used for depression. Eldepryl (selegiline) is a selective MAO-B inhibitors used in Parkinson's disease.

38 >>Select the available dosage strength(s) of oral Actos: I. 30 mg II. 45 mg III. 60 mg ?

• (A) I only
• (B) III only
• (C) I and II
• (D) II and III

Solution Actos (pioglitazone) is available in oral dosage strengths of 15 mg, 30 mg, and 45 mg.

39 >>Which of the following drug(s) is/are available as metered dose inhalers (MDIs)? ?

• (A) Aerobid
• (B) Serevent
• (C) Pulmicort
• (D) Advair

Solution Flunisolide (Aerobid ) is available as a metered dose inhaler (MDI). Serevent , Advair , and Foradil are drugs available for dry powder inhalation (DPIs). Pulmicort is available as a turbuhaler.

40 >>The dose of Accolate for asthma is: ?

• (A) 2 mg BID
• (B) 20 mg BID
• (C) 200 mg QD
• (D) 200 mg BID

Solution The dose of Accolate (zafirlukast) for asthma is 20 mg twice daily.

More quiz >> NAPLEX  Practical Nurses Quiz

Next Quiz >>> NAPLEX Practical Nurses Quiz

Download NAPLEX PN App